Let be the binary linear code
How many binary linear codes are there which are equivalent (under coordinate permutations) to ?
[THOUGHT] We need to count the number of binary linear codes equivalent to under coordinate permutations.
First, understand :
consists of all vectors of length 16 where the -th pair are equal: .
So has dimension 8 (since each independently).
Thus .
Now, coordinate permutations: The group acts on coordinates . Two codes are equivalent if there exists a permutation in mapping one to the other.
We need to count the number of distinct orbits of under this action of . That is, the number of codes such that for some .
Equivalently, the number of distinct permutation equivalence classes of codes isomorphic to (as linear codes) under coordinate permutation.
But is defined by a particular structure: each coordinate is paired with another coordinate (its "twin") and they must be equal. Under a permutation , the image code consists of vectors where for each orbit of the permutation action on the set of coordinates, the coordinates in that orbit have equal entries? Wait, careful.
Let's define: .
A permutation acts on coordinates: . So .
Thus is defined by 8 pairs of coordinates (the images of pairs under ) that must be equal. But note: these pairs could overlap? No, because is a permutation, so the images of the 8 disjoint pairs are 8 disjoint pairs of coordinates (but not necessarily covering all 16 coordinates? Actually, since is bijective, the images of 8 disjoint pairs are 8 disjoint pairs covering all 16 coordinates). So is also a code of the same type: all vectors where for each of 8 disjoint pairs of coordinates, the two coordinates are equal.
Thus is isomorphic to as a code, but the pairing structure is given by these 8 disjoint pairs.
So the question reduces to: How many distinct partitionings of into 8 unordered pairs (a perfect matching) are there, up to permutation of coordinates? Wait, but we are counting codes equivalent under coordinate permutations, not under relabeling of coordinates. Two codes and are equivalent if there exists a permutation such that . But . So iff s.t. i.e. . Since is invariant under permutations that preserve the pairing structure? Actually, is not invariant under all permutations; only those permutations that map each pair to some pair . That's the subgroup preserving the pairing structure.
But easier: The set of all codes of the form corresponds bijectively to the set of all perfect matchings on 16 points (since each gives a pairing: the pairs are for ). However, different permutations can give the same matching? Possibly: if and produce the same set of pairs, then they differ by a permutation within each pair (swapping the two elements) and by permuting the 8 pairs. But the code only cares about the set of pairs (unordered pairs) because the condition is equality within each pair. So indeed, the code depends only on the perfect matching (set of 8 disjoint pairs).
Thus the set of codes equivalent to corresponds bijectively to the set of perfect matchings on 16 labeled vertices. But two matchings are considered equivalent if there exists a permutation of vertices mapping one matching to the other. That's exactly the action of on the set of perfect matchings. So the number of equivalence classes is the number of orbits of acting on perfect matchings.
Thus we need to count the number of distinct perfect matchings up to relabeling of vertices. That's the number of isomorphism classes of perfect matchings on 16 labeled vertices? Wait, but all perfect matchings are isomorphic as graphs (they are 1-regular graphs), but here we consider the underlying vertex set labeled 1..16, and we allow any permutation of labels. So two matchings are in the same orbit if one can be obtained from the other by permuting the labels. Since any two perfect matchings are isomorphic as graphs, but are they in the same orbit under ? Yes, because given any two perfect matchings, there exists a permutation mapping vertices to vertices mapping one matching to the other (since both are 1-regular graphs on the same number of vertices, they are isomorphic). But careful: The permutation must map the specific edges of one matching to edges of the other. Since both are perfect matchings, there exists a permutation of vertices that maps the first matching to the second? Actually, consider two matchings M1 and M2 on vertex set {1,...,16}. We ask: Is there a permutation σ ∈ S_{16} such that σ(M1) = M2? Here σ acts on edges by σ({a,b}) = {σ(a),σ(b)}. For M1 and M2 to be in the same orbit, we need σ(M1) = M2 as sets of edges.
Given any two perfect matchings on the same number of vertices, there exists a permutation mapping one to the other. Because we can label the pairs arbitrarily. More formally: Let M1 have pairs {a1,b1}, ..., {a8,b8}. M2 have pairs {c1,d1}, ..., {c8,d8}. Choose a bijection f from {1,...,8} to {1,...,8} mapping pairs. Then define σ(ai) = ci, σ(bi) = di. Extend to vertices. This σ will map M1 to M2. So indeed, all perfect matchings on 16 vertices are in the same orbit under S_{16}. That suggests there is only 1 equivalence class.
But wait: The code is determined by the matching, but different matchings could be equivalent under coordinate permutations? We just argued all matchings are in the same orbit, so there should be only one equivalence class of codes.
But is that correct? Let's test with smaller case: Suppose we have in (pairs (1,2) and (3,4) equal). How many codes equivalent under coordinate permutations? According to our reasoning, any code defined by a perfect matching on 4 vertices (2 pairs) should be equivalent to C. But are all perfect matchings on 4 vertices in the same orbit under S_4? Let's check: Matchings on {1,2,3,4}: There are two perfect matchings: M1 = {{1,2},{3,4}} and M2 = {{1,3},{2,4}}. Is there a permutation σ such that σ(M1) = M2? We need σ({1,2}) = {1,3} or {2,4} etc. Try σ(1)=1, σ(2)=3, then σ({1,2}) = {1,3}. Then we need σ({3,4}) = {2,4}. With σ(1)=1, σ(2)=3, we need to define σ(3) and σ(4) such that σ({3,4}) = {2,4}. But σ(3) cannot be 2 because σ(2)=3 already, and σ must be bijective. Let's systematically find σ: We want σ({1,2}) = {a,b} and σ({3,4}) = {c,d} with {a,b,c,d} = {1,2,3,4}. So σ is a bijection mapping {1,2} to some pair and {3,4} to the complementary pair. There are 3 ways to partition {1,2,3,4} into two pairs. The orbit of M1 under S_4: Apply permutations. For example, swap 2 and 3: σ = (2 3). Then σ(M1) = {{1,3},{2,4}} = M2. So indeed M1 and M2 are in the same orbit. So for n=4, there is only 1 orbit. So for 16, likely also 1 orbit.
But wait: The code C has dimension 8. Any code defined by a perfect matching also has dimension 8 (since each pair gives one free variable). So all such codes are isomorphic as linear codes. But the question asks: "How many binary linear codes are there which are equivalent (under coordinate permutations) to C?" That means: count distinct codes C' such that C' = π(C) for some π ∈ S_{16}. But as argued, π(C) is determined by the matching induced by π. And all matchings are in the same orbit, so there is only one equivalence class? That would mean the answer is 1.
But is that correct? Let's think: The code C itself is defined by a specific matching: the pairing (1,2), (3,4), ..., (15,16). Under coordinate permutations, we can get any perfect matching on 16 vertices. But are all perfect matchings obtainable? Yes, because for any perfect matching M, there exists a permutation π such that π maps the original pairs to M. So indeed, the set of codes of the form π(C) is exactly the set of all codes defined by a perfect matching.
Now, two such codes π(C) and σ(C) are equivalent if there exists τ such that τ(π(C)) = σ(C). But τ(π(C)) = (τ∘π)(C). So π(C) and σ(C) are equivalent iff there exists τ such that (τ∘π)(C) = σ(C), i.e., τ∘π ∈ N_{S_{16}}(C)? Wait, not exactly: The condition is existence of τ such that τ(π(C)) = σ(C). But σ(C) = π'(C) for some π'. So we need τ(π(C)) = π'(C). That is, (τ∘π)(C) = π'(C). So π'(C) = (τ∘π)(C). This means that π' and τ∘π give the same code. But as argued, two permutations give the same code iff they induce the same matching. So π' and τ∘π induce the same matching. That means π' = τ∘π composed with something that preserves the matching? Actually, the stabilizer of C in S_{16} is the subgroup that preserves the matching (i.e., permutes within each pair and permutes the pairs). So π'(C) = (τ∘π)(C) iff τ∘π and π' are in the same coset of the stabilizer? Wait, careful:
Let H = { σ ∈ S_{16} : σ(C) = C }. Then σ(C) = C iff σ preserves the matching (i.e., maps each pair to some pair, possibly swapping within pair). So H ≅ (S_2 ≀ S_8) (wreath product). Then two permutations π and π' give the same code π(C) = π'(C) iff π'^{-1}π ∈ H, i.e., π' ∈ π H.
Thus the set of codes π(C) corresponds bijectively to the set of left cosets of H in S_{16}, i.e., S_{16}/H. But we want the number of equivalence classes under the action of S_{16} on these codes. The action is: for τ ∈ S_{16}, τ acts on code π(C) by τ(π(C)) = (τ∘π)(C). So two codes π(C) and π'(C) are in the same orbit iff there exists τ such that (τ∘π)(C) = π'(C) iff τ∘π ∈ π' H iff π'^{-1}τ∘π ∈ H. This is equivalent to τ ∈ π' H π^{-1}. So the orbits correspond to the double cosets? Actually, we need: π(C) and π'(C) are in the same orbit iff ∃ τ: τ(π(C)) = π'(C). This is equivalent to π'(C) = τ(π(C)) = (τ∘π)(C). So π'(C) = (τ∘π)(C) iff π'^{-1}τ∘π ∈ H, i.e., τ ∈ π' H π^{-1}. So for fixed π, the orbit of π(C) is { σ(C) : σ ∈ S_{16} } = { σ(C) : σ ∈ S_{16} } = { π H' (C) : π H' ∈ S_{16} }? Wait, easier: The set of all codes of the form π(C) is the set of left cosets of H in S_{16}? Actually, each code is π(C) for some π, and π(C) = π'(C) iff π' ∈ π H. So the set of distinct codes is in bijection with S_{16}/H (left cosets). So there are |S_{16}|/|H| distinct codes of the form π(C). But we are not counting distinct codes; we are counting orbits of these codes under the action of S_{16} (by left multiplication on permutations). That is, the action of S_{16} on S_{16}/H by left multiplication: τ·(πH) = (τπ)H. So the orbits of this action correspond to the double cosets H \ S_{16} / H? Actually, the action is transitive? Let's check: S_{16} acts on S_{16}/H by left multiplication: τ·(πH) = (τπ)H. This action is transitive because for any two left cosets πH and σH, we can choose τ = σπ^{-1}, then τ·(πH) = (σπ^{-1}π)H = σH. So the action is transitive. That means all codes π(C) are in the same orbit under this action. So there is only 1 orbit.
Thus the number of codes equivalent to C is 1.
But wait: The problem might be asking for the number of distinct codes equivalent under coordinate permutations, not the number of orbits. The phrasing: "How many binary linear codes are there which are equivalent (under coordinate permutations) to C?" This could be interpreted as: count the number of distinct codes C' such that C' is equivalent to C. That is, the size of the equivalence class of C under coordinate permutation action. That is the number of distinct codes obtainable as π(C) for some π ∈ S_{16}. That is |S_{16}|/|H|, not the number of orbits.
Let's read carefully: "How many binary linear codes are there which are equivalent (under coordinate permutations) to C?" Usually, "equivalent to C" means in the same equivalence class as C. So we need to count the number of codes in the equivalence class of C. That is the number of distinct codes of the form π(C) for π ∈ S_{16}. That is |S_{16}| / |H|, where H is the stabilizer of C.
Thus we need to compute |S_{16}| / |H|. H consists of permutations that preserve the pairing structure: they can permute the 8 pairs among themselves (8! ways) and within each pair, swap the two coordinates or not (2^8 ways). So |H| = 8! * 2^8.
Thus number of distinct codes = |S_{16}| / |H| = 16! / (8! * 2^8).
But is that the answer? Let's verify with small case n=4: For C = {(a,a,b,b)} in , stabilizer H has size: pairs: (1,2) and (3,4). H ≅ S_2 ≀ S_2, so |H| = (2!)^2 * 2^2 = 2^2 * 4 = 16? Wait, S_2 ≀ S_2: base group (S_2)^2, and symmetric group S_2 acts by permuting the two copies. So order = |S_2|^2 * |S_2| = 2^2 * 2 = 8. Actually, the wreath product S_2 ≀ S_2 has order (2!)^2 * 2! = 4*2=8. Yes, |H| = 8. Then |S_4| = 24, so number of distinct codes = 24/8 = 3. But earlier we argued there are only two perfect matchings on 4 vertices? Wait, perfect matchings on 4 vertices: there are 3 matchings: M1 = {{1,2},{3,4}}, M2 = {{1,3},{2,4}}, M3 = {{1,4},{2,3}}. Indeed, there are 3 perfect matchings. So our formula gives 3 distinct codes, which matches. So for 16, number of perfect matchings is (16)!/(8! * 2^8). That's exactly the number of distinct codes obtainable as π(C). But the question asks: "How many binary linear codes are there which are equivalent (under coordinate permutations) to C?" That could be interpreted as the size of the equivalence class of C, which is exactly that number.
But wait, equivalence class under coordinate permutations: two codes are equivalent if there exists a coordinate permutation mapping one to the other. So the equivalence class of C is the set of all codes of the form π(C) for π ∈ S_{16}. That set has size |S_{16}|/|H|.
Thus answer = 16! / (8! * 2^8).
Let's compute that number.
We'll compute using Python.
[PYTHON] import math
n = 16
Compute 16! / (8! * 2^8)
result = math.factorial(16) // (math.factorial(8) * (2**8)) print(result) [/PYTHON]
[THOUGHT] The Python output shows 2027025. This is the number of distinct codes equivalent to C under coordinate permutations, computed as .
Thus the answer is 2027025.